This is a flawed and misleading statement. Less fuel consumption per unit of work performed = improved (gas exchange process) efficiency. The same oil supply ratio exists per unit of fuel though. You assumed that fuel consumption is always equal to oil consumption, which is never true in any two-stroke motor design.
Lubricating oil separates from the transport media (the fuel in this case) more readily while the transport media is vaporizing its mass containing a 32:1 non-vaporizing oil ratio, than a 50:1 oil ratio. So a much higher volume of oil is always separating from a 32:1 ratio per unit of Time. Available oil supply exits the exhaust directly related to Time (RPMs), whether fuel consumption increases or decreases relative to each unit of time.
The oil/fuel ratio is still the same, so the same amount of oil is always available, separating from the carrier fuel and lubricating and carrying heat generated by friction away from those same parts.
The only issue that comes into play here is whether the oil supply pass-through (volume of oil) is sufficient to begin with. That is determined by the mix ratio vs friction loads @ operating RPMs, because fuel is just a transport media for the lubricant. As RPMs increase, more oil supply is always required. And as friction loads are increased, more oil supply is always required.
No matter how you slice it, it boils down to having a sufficient oil/fuel ratio vs loads@RPMs to begin with. Oil consumption rates always differ from fuel consumption rates at any given RPM.
EDIT: I'm not trying to bust any balls here... its just that most people read blanket statements like these and accept them as fact without thinking... then repeat them over and over for years without ever understanding what in sam-hell they are talking about. Where we allow that to happen we end up tolerating a population of diarrhea-mouthed herd animals. Much like we got in the world today... :-(
We all make mistakes. Life isn't a competition... its co-operation.